Answer Key & Detailed Solutions - UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam -2017 General Studies Paper - 1
SET – Unknown
1)
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider
the following statements:
1.
A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a
Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of
India.
2.
Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in
the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: D
Justification:
Statement
1: It is introduced by any member who is not a Minister. A bill introduced by a
Minister is called as a public bill.
Statement
2: Around 14 private member’s bills have been passed since independence.
since-independence-3759/
2)
With reference to the difference between the culture
of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1.
Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in
warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any
evidence of using them.
2.
Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas
Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
3.
Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas
there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: A
Justification: Statement 2: The
Indus valley people knew the use of copper, bronze, silver, gold but not iron.
So, 2 is wrong.
Statement 1: The
Ramayana mentions chariots covered with leather. The Rig Vedic charioteers used
varma (coats of mail) and sipra/sironastra (helmets).
Equipped with asi
(swords), hanas (arrows) and ilhianus (bows), the Kshatriyas on the chariots
went to combat.
Since statement 2 is
wrong, given the options 1 must be correct.
Statement 3: This is
a disputed Statement.
The Rig Veda
mentions horse-drawn chariots with spoked wheels.
But there is very
little archaeological evidence of horses during the Harappan era and none at
all earlier. The existence of the Harappan horse is a hotly disputed topic among
archaeologists.
•
Some claim that horse was NOT known.
•
Among the numerous seals found in Harappa there is
none which represent a horse, while other animals like the bull, buffalo, and
goat are represented.
•
Moreover, the cavalry (of horses) as an organised
force can be traced only to the post vedic period, but not earlier.
On the other hand,
some scholars claim that the horse was widely domesticated and used in India in
the area covered by the Indus-Sarasvati (or Harappan) Civilisation, but this
evidence remains unsubstantiated.
FINAL
VIEW: But, based on the above, to say that “there is no evidence of Indus
Valley people having been aware of this animal” is WRONG because there is no
conclusive evidence that tells us whether they knew about horses, or whether
they were aware of horses. We have insufficient evidence to claim anything
about the connection between horses and Indus valley.
Statement
3 is thus incorrect.
http://www.thehindu.com/thehindu/op/2002/03/05/stories/2002030500130100.htm http://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/1362/11/11_chapter%206.pdf https://www.telegraphindia.com/1150813/jsp/opinion/story_36828.jsp
3.
Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes
mentioned in the news with reference to
(a)
Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers
through traditional channels.
(b)
Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance
learning programmes.
(c)
Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in
some public sector undertakings.
(d)
Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the
National Skill Development Programme.
Why: Aspirants cover core
schemes and programmes but often miss covering ancillary and peripheral
aspects. This was picked from ‘between the lines’ on the official website of
PMKVY. Such ancillary questions can be expected even in the coming years.
Justification: Option A: The
‘Recognition of Prior Learning’ scheme — underway across construction sites in
five states — to certify skills acquired by workers through traditional
learning channels.
•
The project may be of particular relevance to a
country where just 2 per cent of the workforce is certified as skilled.
•
Most deemed to be outside the skilled category in
India are those who have typically picked up a skill while on the job, without
any formal degree to back this up.
Option D is
incorrect since it talks about trainees who are not fully skilled to get
recognition of any prior learning.
Individuals with
prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and certified under
Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) in Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
(PMKVY), but this isn’t applicable to trainees. So, D is incorrect.
4.
From the ecological point of view, which one of the
following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and
the Western Ghats?
(a)
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(b)
Nallamala Forest
(c)
Nagarhole National Park
(d)
Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
Why: UPSC has the habit
of picking up options from questions of its past year papers and asking new
questions after improvising them. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve can be found
occasionally mentioned in CSP and CAPF papers; hence the question.
Justification: Sathyamangalam
forest range is a significant wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere
Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats and a
genetic link between the four other protected areas which it adjoins, including
the Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai
National Park and Bandipur National Park.
Map below shows the
protected area.
|
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sathyamangalam_Wildlife_Sanctuary
 |
5.
One of the implications of equality in society is the
absence of
(a)
Privileges
(b)
Restraints
(c)
Competition
(d)
Ideology Solution: A
Justification: Article 18 of the
constitution justifies this. Under Right to equality, A18 abolishes titular
privileges (except military or academic) granted to citizens of India.
6) Consider the
following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in
Commerce (TRAFFIC):
1.
TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP).
2.
The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild
plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: B
Why: WWF and related
agencies/schemes/initiatives are a hot favourite of UPSC, one example being
Earth hour. Try to cover WWF website comprehensively to answer such questions.
Justification:Statement 1: It is a
NGO, not a bureau under UNEP. So, 1 is wrong.
TRAFFIC is governed
by the TRAFFIC Committee, a steering group composed of members of TRAFFIC’s
partner organizations, WWF and IUCN.
Statement
2: It is working globally on Wildlife trade monitoring network.
It specializes in
investigating and analysing wildlife trade trends, patterns, impacts and
drivers to provide the leading knowledge base on trade in wild animals and
plants.
7.
Which principle among the following was added to the
Directive Principles of Stat Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
(a)
Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b)
Participation of workers in the management of
industries
(c)
Right to work, education and public assistance
(d)
Securing living wage and human conditions of work to
workers Solution: B
Justification: The 42nd Amendment
added new Directive Principles, viz Article 39A, Article 43A and Article 48A.
Article
43A deals with ‘Participation of workers in management of industries’. http://indiacode.nic.in/coiweb/amend/amend42.htm
8.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a)
Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
(b)
Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the
Constitution of a State.
(c)
Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
(d)
Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the
many.
Justification: Option C: The
philosophy of rights is grounded in preventing the exploitation of the citizen
by the state. So, essentially it is the claim of an individual against the
state.
Option B: This is
wrong because rights are not privileges, they are the bare minimum for the
formation of a democratic state. Also, the constitution abolishes the concept
of special privileges.
9.
Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’
ranking to the countries of the world?
(a)
World Economic Forum
(b)
UN Human Rights Council
(c)
UN Women
(d)
World Health Organization Solution: A
Why: India was ranked at
a lowly 87th position in the gender gap index that created headlines. It is an
important report brought out by WEF.
10)
Which of the following statements is/are correct
regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?
1.
It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing
every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
2.
It is an initiative to identify new digital technology
innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
3.
It is a programme aimed at making all the financial
transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below :
(a)
1 and 3 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
3 only
(d)
2 and 3 only Solution: B
Why: It is a part of
Digital India programme of the government. Expect related questions from
official events and schemes.
Justification:
Statement
1 and 3: There are no such provisions.
Statement 2: It was
a digital product development competition during which teams of thousands of
technology students built innovative digital solutions for the problems posted
by different central govt. ministries/ departments.
11)
Which of the following statements is/are correct
regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
1.
It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
2.
It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI
and is reconstituted every year.
3.
It functions under the chairmanship of the Union
Finance Minister.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below :
(a)
1 only
(b)
1 and 2 only
(c)
3 only
(d)
2 and 3 only Solution: A
Why: It was a major news
break, and perhaps the most significant reform in India’s monetary policy
framework in past few decades.
Justification:
Statement
1: It decides the repo rates, CRR, SLR etc. It replaced the earlier system of
policy rate veto by the RBI governor.
Statement 2: It
consists of six members (RBI Governor, Deputy Gov RBI, One RBI officer and
three members nominated by the government), and they hold office for a period
of four years.
Statement
3: The Governor of the RBI is the ex-officio Chairperson of MPC. http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=151264
12)
With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the
following statements:
1.
It is a song and dance performance.
2.
Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the
performance.
3.
It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord
Krishna.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1, 2 and 3.
(b)
1 and 3 only
(c)
2 and 3 only
(d)
1 only Solution: B
Why: Sankirtana is one of
the few important Indian heritages inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List
of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
Justification: Statement 1 and 3:
Sankirtana performers narrate the lives and deeds of Krishna through ritual
singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur. So, both 1 and 3 are correct.
Statement
2: Since drums are also used, statement 2 is incorrect.
00843
13)
Who among the following was/were associated with the
introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?
1.
Lord Cornwallis
2.
Alexander Read
3.
Thomas Munro
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 only
(b)
1 and 3 only
(c)
2 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3
Justification: Statement 1 and 3:
The Ryotwari system was devised by Capt. Alexander Read and Thomas Munro at the
end of the 18th century. It was later introduced by Thomas Munro when he was
governor (1820-27) of Madras.
Statement 2: He is
associated with the Cornwallis Code 1793 and could not have been the answer
since his tenure preceded the ryotwari settlement regime.
The principle behind
Roytwari was the direct collection of the land revenue from each individual
cultivator by government agents.
14)
In the context of solving pollution problems, what
is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?
1.
It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by
enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2.
Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and
lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using
microorganisms.
3.
Genetic engineering can be used to create
microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: C
Why: Expect around 6-8
standard conceptual questions on Eco-engineering every year. Bioremediation,
biofuels, genetic engineering are some such standard concepts.
Justification: Statement 1: Bioremediation
uses naturally occurring organisms to break down hazardous substances into less
toxic or non toxic substances.
Statement 2: Always
be cautious of extreme statements and words as we have repeatedly pointed out
in our 2017 Prelims Test Series. Completely and readily (quickly) are such
words here.
Bio-remediation
is a slow process, so. Heavy metals such as cadmium and lead are NOT readily
absorbed or captured by microorganisms. UPSC had lifted this straight from
Wikipedia.
Statement 3: This
will be a standard practice in the industry in coming years. For e.g.
Alcanivorax, a bacteria with oil-eating abilities, can be used to create
species that are much more capable of cleaning oil spills.
15.
The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for
(a)
the participation of workers in the management of
industries.
(b)
arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial
disputes.
(c)
an intervention by the British Court in the event of a
trade dispute.
(d)
a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.
Why: Labour reforms were
hitherto largely ignored by UPSC, and only occasionally covered in NDA, CDS and
CAPF papers in the form of Whitley Commission (employee- employer dispute
resolution) and labour uprisings. Now, UPSC is moving to peripheral areas in
history.
Justification: Prior to the year
1947 (India’s Independence), The Trade Disputes Act, 1929 used to settle
industrial disputes.
Tribunals: The main
object of the 1929 Act was to make provisions for establishment of Courts of
Inquiry and Boards of Conciliation with a view to investigate and settle trade
disputes.
Strikes: The Act
prohibited strikes or lock-outs without notice in public utility services; it
also made any strike or lock-out illegal which had any object other than the
furtherance of a trade dispute within the trade or industry.
http://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/8113/12/12_chapter%203.pdf
16.
Local self-government can be best explained as an
exercise in
(a)
Federalism
(b)
Democratic decentralisation
(c)
Administrative delegation
(d)
Direct democracy Solution: B
Option B:
Decentralization and grass roots empowerment are the core guiding principles of
local self-government as under 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment. For e.g.
Gram Panchayats can sanction sanitation and welfare projects on their own.
Option
A: Local bodies are not federal entities as is the position of states in India.
Option C: This isn’t
administrative delegation because local self-government bodies are political
entities that are elected directly (or indirectly) by people and managed by
their representatives.
Option D: Since it
involves election and indirect decision making by people’s representatives, there
can be no direct democracy (where all decisions are made directly by the
people).
17.
Consider the following statements:
With
reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State
Policy constitute limitations upon
1.
legislative function.
2.
executive function.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: D
Justification: It is the
fundamental rights that constitute limitations upon state action (whether
legislative or executive).
The directive
principles are in the nature of instruments of instruction to the government of
the day to achieve certain ends by their actions. It guides them, not restricts
them.
18.
The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the
news refers to
(a)
ASEAN
(b)
BRICS
(c)
EU
(d)
G20 Solution: C
Why:
Brexit
from Euro Zone brought focus on EU amid impending Global Digital revolution.
UPSC
lifted this from EU’s official website.
Justification: The Digital Single
Market is part of the Digital Agenda for Europe 2020 program of the EU, an
initiative of Europe 2020 proposed strategy.
The
three said “pillars” of the European Commission strategy are:
•
Access to online products and services
•
Conditions for digital networks and services to grow
and thrive
•
Growth of the European digital economy
19.
At one of the places in India, if you stand on the
seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the
shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you
can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique
phenomenon is seen at
(a)
Bhavnagar
(b)
Bheemunipatnam
(c)
Chandipur
(d)
Nagapattinam Solution: C
Why: Chandipur-on-sea and
Gopalpur-on-sea are frequently mentioned in past year papers of UPSC. This
question is an improvisation of these places mentioned in the options of those
papers.
Justification: Chandipur-on-sea
(Odisha) beach is unique in that the water recedes up to 5 kilometers during
the ebb tide.
You can ‘literally’
walk into the beach as the sea water recedes away from the shore line during
the ebb tide (time period between the high tide and the low tide).
20)
With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property
Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:
1.
A property transaction is not treated as a benami
transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2.
Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by
the Government.
3.
The Act provides for three authorities for
investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
2 and 3 only Solution: B
Why: Current Events:
Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 has been amended by the Benami
Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016 (BTP Amendment Act).
Justification: Statement 1:
“Ignorance of law cannot be an excuse for the violation of law” is a basic
principle based on which statement 1 is wrong.
Statement 2:
Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government without
payment of compensation.
Statement 3: An
appellate mechanism has been provided under the PBPT Act in the form of
Adjudicating Authority and Appellate Tribunal.
21)
Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the
population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely
consequence/consequences?
1.
Pollination of some plants could be adversely
affected.
2.
There could be a drastic increase in the fungal
infections of some cultivated plants.
3.
It could lead to a fall in the population of some
species of wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: C
Statement 1: Bees
and butterflies play a vital role in the pollination of plants and the
production of crops by transporting pollen grains from one place to another.
Statement
2: This is an absurd statement.
Statement
3: These are some of the common predators of butterflies: wasps, ants,
parasitic flies, birds, snakes, toads, rats etc. The decline in butterfly
population would therefore
adversely affect the food chain. http://www.thebutterflysite.com/what-eats-
butterflies.shtml#sthash.PPoslJj4.dpuf
22)
It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but
what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?
1.
Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas
only and not on continents.
2.
Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel
production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction
is completed.
3.
Economically viable production necessitates the
setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social
concerns.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: B
Justification: Statement 1: Algaculture
(farming algae) can be initiated on land unsuitable for agriculture or saline
water or wastewater. So, 1 is wrong.
Statement 2:
Producing algae for bio-fuels (excluding simple seaweed production) requires
significant capital investments, which may be a significant barrier in
developing countries that have a weak investment climate.
• Producing biofuels
from algae is still in a pre-commercial state of technology
development. Most
production plants are therefore prototypes, and the development and engineering
of such plants requires a high level of expertise.
Statement 3: Using
the land allotted to food crops to algal biofuel reduces the amount of food
available for humans, resulting in an increased cost for both the food and the
fuel produced. This is an ecological as well as economic concern.
23)
Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National
Nutrition Mission’?
1.
To create awareness relating to malnutrition among
pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2.
To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young
children, adolescent girls and women.
3.
To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals
and unpolished rice.
4.
To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b)
1, 2 and 3 only
(c)
1, 2 and 4 only
(d)
3 and 4 only Solution: A
Why: Picked from the
recent schemes section of the Ministry of Women and Child Development Website.
Justification: Statement 3 and 4
are wrong because there is no mention of eggs or unpolished rice or millets in
the official release document: http://wcd.nic.in/sites/default/files/Multisectoralprog.pdf
Statement 1 and 2:
There are two components of the National Nutrition Mission as follows:
1.
Information, Education and Communication (IEC)
Campaign against malnutrition
2.
Multi-sectoral Nutrition Programme
The
key objectives of the programmes under the Mission are as under:
•
To create awareness relating to malnutrition amongst
pregnant women, lactating mothers, promote healthy lactating practices and
importance of balanced nutrition;
•
To improve maternal and child under-nutrition in 200
high burdened districts and to prevent and reduce the under-nutrition prevalent
among children below 3 years;
•
To reduce incidence of anaemia among young children,
adolescent girls and women.
24)
Consider the following statements:
1.
The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix
the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
2.
N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour
movement in British India.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: B
Statement 1: It is
wrong.
The 1881 Act aimed
to improve working condtions of labour.
It prohibited the
employment of children under the age of seven, limited the number of working
hours for children below the age of twelve and required that dangerous
machinery should be fenced properly.
Statement 2:
Lokhande was a pioneer of the labour movement in India. He is remembered not
only for ameliorating the working conditions of textile mill-hands in the 19th
century but also for his courageous initiatives on caste and communal issues.
25)
In the context of mitigating the impending global
warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the
following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?
1.
Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2.
Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3.
Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b)
3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: D
Geo-sequestration is
a method that involves injecting carbon dioxide, generally in supercritical
form, directly into underground geological formations.
Statement 1:
Unmineable coal seams can be used to store CO2 because the CO2 molecules attach
to the surface of coal.
Statement
2: CO2 is sometimes injected into declining oil fields to increase oil
recovery.
Other potential
sites are gas fields, saline formations (statement 3), unmineable coal seams,
and saline-filled basalt formations can act as storage sites.
After sequestration,
various physical (e.g., highly impermeable caprock) and geochemical trapping
mechanisms prevent the CO2 from escaping to the surface.
26.
The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to?
(a)
Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial
Governments.
(b)
Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
(c)
Impose censorship on national press.
(d)
Improve the relationship between the Government of
India and the Indian States. Solution: D
Justification: It was also known as
the Indian states committee.
Relations between
the Indian Princes and the crown were not well defined because the extent of sovereignty
of the Paramount power was not settled properly.
The Indian states
committee (under the Chairmanship of Harcourt Butler) in 1927 was appointed to
investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power and the
Princes.
27. The term
‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to
(a)
Developing solar power production in our country
(b)
Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels in our
country
(c)
Exporting our food products to other countries
(d)
Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up
their campuses in our country Solution: A
Why: Frequently in news
due to being related to WTO disputes and India’s solar power ambitions.
Justification: India’s Jawaharlal
Nehru National Solar Mission (JNNSM) favours Indian manufacturers of solar
panels and cells in government procurement. This is known as DCR.
•
The WTO’s Appellate Body has declared domestic content
requirement (DCRs) in JNNSM as illegal.
•
The US alleged that India’s subsidies for the JNNSM
discriminates against foreign suppliers of solar component.
•
The primary point of conflict is with regards to
government entering into long term electricity purchase contract with eligible
solar power developers (SPDs), assuring them guaranteed prices for 25 years.
requirements-in-solar-power-50977
28)
Consider the following statements:
1.
The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held
under the aegis of the United
Nations.
2.
The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an
organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: D
Justification: Statement 1: It is
wrong.
In his 2009 speech,
Obama (Former US President) stated that nuclear terrorism “is the most immediate
and extreme threat to global security.”
•
To mitigate this threat, he urged that “we act with
purpose and without delay,” announcing “a new international effort to secure
vulnerable nuclear material around the world” that would begin with “a Global
Summit on Nuclear Security that the United States will host.”
Statement
2: This is also wrong.
•
Established in 2006, it is a group of independent
nuclear experts from 18 countries: Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany,
India, Iran, Japan, the Netherlands,
Mexico,
Norway, Pakistan, South Korea, Russia, South Africa, Sweden, the United
Kingdom, and the United States.
•
It aims to advance international initiatives to
“secure and to sharply reduce all stocks of highly enriched uranium and
separated plutonium, the key materials in nuclear weapons, and to limit any
further production”
29.
Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?
(a)
Resident Indian citizens only
(b)
Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
(c)
All State Government employees joining the services
after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
(d)
All Central Government employees including those of
Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1 St April, 2004
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: A
citizen of India, whether resident or non-resident can join NPS, subject to
that he should be between 18 and 60 years old. So, 1 and 2 are wrong.
Statement 3 and 4:
NPS is applicable to all new employees of Central Government service (except
Armed Forces) and Central Autonomous Bodies joining Government service on or after
1st January 2004. So, 3 is wrong and 4 is correct.
30)
With reference to river Teesta, consider the following
statements:
1.
The source of river T eesta is the same as that of
Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
2.
River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a
tributary of river Teesta.
3.
River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of
India and Bangladesh.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 and 3 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
2 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: B
Justification: Statement 1 and 3:
Teesta River originates from the Pahunri glacier. Brahmaputra originates in
Angsi glacier. Teesta is a tributary of Brahmaputra. So, 1 is wrong.
But,
Teesta flows through West Bengal and Sikkim, before going to Bay of Bengal
through Bangladesh. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2: Rangeet
is a tributary of the Teesta river, which is the largest river in Sikkim. It
also originates in Sikkim.
 |
 |
 |
 |
||||
Yarlung Zangbo (Tsangpo)
Bay of Bengal
31)
Consider the following statements:
1.
In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted
by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
2.
Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: C
Justification:
Statement
1: Zika virus is transmitted to people primarily through the bite of an
infected Aedes species mosquito (Ae. aegypti and Ae. albopictus). These are the
same mosquitoes that spread dengue and chikungunya viruses.
Statement
2: Zika can be passed through sex from a person who has Zika to his or her
partners. Zika can be passed through sex, even if the infected person does not
have symptoms at the time.
32)
Consider the following statements:
1.
The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
2.
AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the
Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: A
Justification: Statement 1: You can
find it here http://www.bis.org.in/cert/ProdUnManCert.asp
Statement 2: AGMARK
is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India, assuring
that they conform to a set of standards approved by the Directorate of
Marketing and Inspection, an agency of the Government of India.
www.agritech.tnau.ac.in/amis/food_agmark.html
33)
What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing
the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?
1.
It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for
agricultural commodities.
2.
It provides the farmers access to nationwide market,
with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below :
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: C
Justification:
Statement
1: National Agriculture Market (NAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal
which networks the existing APMC mandis to create a unified national market for
agricultural commodities.
Statement
2: It removes information asymmetry between buyers and sellers and promotes
real time price discovery, based on actual demand and supply, promotes
transparency in auction process, and access to a nationwide market for the
farmer, with prices commensurate with quality of his produce and online payment
and availability of better quality produce and at more reasonable prices to the
consumer.
http://www.enam.gov.in/NAM/home/about_nam.html#
34)
With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property
Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:
1.
It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha
Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
2.
Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the
nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: C
Justification: Statement 1: This is
the reason why this policy was introduced.
Statement 2: The
action by different Ministries/ Departments shall be monitored by DIPP which
shall be the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee implementation
and future development of IPRs in India.
35)
According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972,
which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some
provisions provided by law?
1.
Gharial
2.
Indian wild ass
3.
Wild buffalo
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
1, 2 and 3 Solution: D
Justification: All of these are
protected scheduled animals under the Wildlife Act. http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife2s1
.pdf
36)
Which of the following statements is/are true of the
Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
1.
A legislative process has been provided to enforce
these duties.
2.
They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: C
Justification: The language of this
question is confusing and ambiguous, nonetheless a meaningful solution can be
arrived at.
Statement 1: While
FDs can be enforced by legislative processes (for e.g. Environment Protection
Act that helps enforce the individual duty of environment protection), the
constitution explicitly does not enforce them via legal provisions or does not
explicitly mention in Part IVA that there are legislative processes to enforce
them.
However, since the
Parliament has enforced most fundamental duties already via a legislative
process, we will consider this statement 1 as correct.
Statement 2: It is
not clear what UPSC means by ‘legal duties’, but for all practical purposes it
can be considered as ‘law of the land’.
FDs are in sync with
legal duties because what is illegal cannot be a fundamental duty, and what is
a fundamental duty has also been made a legal duty (e.g. respecting women).
Also, it is an
Indian citizen’s fundamental duty to abide by the constitutional laws (legal
duties); this brings the correlation. Statement 2 is thus correct.
37)
Consider the following pairs:
1.
Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian
Association
2.
Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty —Founder of the Madras
Mahajana Sabha
3.
Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association
Which of the above
pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1 and 3 only
(c)
2 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: B
Justification: Statement 1: The
first committee of the association was composed of: Raja Radhakanta Deb -
President, Raja Kalikrishna Deb - Vice-President, Debendranath Tagore -
secretary, et al.
Statement 2: In
1884, M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer and P. Anandacharlu
established the Madras Mahajana Sabha.
Statement
3: IA was the first avowed nationalist organization founded in British India by
Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose in 1876.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/British_Indian_Association
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Madras_Mahajana_Sabha
38.
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the
Constitution of India?
(a)
Liberty of thought
(b)
Economic liberty
(c)
Liberty of expression
(d)
Liberty of belief Solution: B
Straightforward
question
39)
With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’,
consider the following statements:
1.
QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and
the Indian Industry.
2.
Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on
the recommendations of the industry to the Government.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: C
Justification:
Statement
1: The Quality Council of India (QCI) is a pioneering experiment of the
Government of India in setting up organizations in partnership with the Indian
industry.
Statement 2: QCI is
governed by a Council comprising of 38 members including the Chairman and
Secretary General where the Chairman is nominated by Prime Minister of India.
40)
What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance
Banks (SFBs) in India?
1.
To supply credit to small business units
2.
To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
3.
To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business
particularly in rural areas. Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: A
Justification: As per RBI
Guidelines, “The objectives of setting up of small finance banks will be to
further financial inclusion by (a) provision of savings vehicles, and (ii)
supply of credit to small business units; small and marginal farmers; micro and
small industries; and other unorganised sector entities, through high
technology-low cost operations.” It will thus support unserved and underserved
sections.
However, apart from
the provision of credit, there is no explicit provision that SFBs have been
setup to encourage setting of businesses in rural areas. Statement 3 will be
considered wrong.
new-small-banks.html
41)
With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference
on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements:
1.
The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the
theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.
2.
India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in
partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: D
Justification: Statement 1: The
2006 New Delhi APMCHUD conference theme was “A vision for sustainable
urbanisation in the Asia-Pacific by 2020”. So, 1 is wrong.
Statement 2: Second
Conference was held in Tehran, Iran.
42.
Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it
calls into activity
(a)
the intelligence and character of ordinary men and
women.
(b)
the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
(c)
a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d)
a band of dedicated party workers.
Solution: A
Justification: This is another
ambiguously framed question.
Option A: Democracy
allows you to vote (by exercising your intellect), it gives you
liberty and freedom of expression (so that you intellectual potential is
fulfilled), and ensures adherence of moral values (character) such as justice
and equality. So, A seems appropriate.
Option
B: There is no ground for this statement.
Option C: Since it
specifies a “superior individual”, it attaches a sense of privilege to selected
people, which is against democratic values. It also does not clarify what the
dynamism and vision means.
Option
D: No ground.
43.
Which of the following is a most likely consequence of
implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?
(a)
Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online
payments.
(b)
Digital currency will totally replace the physical
currency in about two decades.
(c)
FDI inflows will drastically increase.
(d)
Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will
become very effective.
Solution:
A
Justification: Option A and D: UPI
allows a customer to pay directly from a bank account to different merchants,
both online and offline, without the hassle of typing credit card details, IFSC
code, or net banking/wallet passwords. So, A is correct and thus D is
inappropriate in this context (as we are not talking about government to people
transfer through UPI).
Option
B and C: These are uncertain events, hence discarded.
Interface/article14593189.ece
44.
The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, 'String
Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a)
Observation and understanding of the Universe
(b)
Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
(c)
Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
(d)
Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth Solution: A
Justification: Singularity and
event horizons are related to Black Holes.
Standard model of
physics tries to explain universal phenomena.
String
theory is used in the context of quantum physics that is used to understand
quantum phenomena.
45) With reference
to agriculture in India, how can the technique of 'genome sequencing’, often
seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?
1.
Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic
markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2.
This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop
new varieties of crop plants.
3.
It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen
relationships in crops.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: D
Justification: Genome sequencing is
figuring out the order of DNA nucleotides, or bases, in a genome—the order of
As, Cs, Gs, and Ts that make up an organism’s DNA.
Justification: Statement 1:
Currently available newborn screening (genome) for childhood diseases allows
detection of rare disorders that can be prevented or better treated by early
detection and intervention.
Statement 2:
Naturally if the gene potential can be identified by screening and sequencing,
it will help in better genetic engineering.
Statement
3: This can be reasoned logically based on the above. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Whole
genome sequencing
46.
The main advantage of the parliamentary form of
government is that
(a)
the executive and legislature work independently.
(b)
it provides continuity of policy and is more
efficient.
(c)
the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d)
the head of the government cannot be changed without
election.
Straightforward
question based on the core Parliamentary democracy principles.
47.
In the context of India, which one of the following is
the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
(a)
Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b)
Rights are personal and hence independent of society
and Duties.
(c)
Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement
of the personality of the citizen.
(d)
Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of
the State.
Justification:
Rights
and duties have an organic relationship. One cannot enjoy a right if others do
not obey their duties.
For e.g. you can’t
enjoy your Right to a clean environment if others do not perform their duty of
protecting and conserving the environment.
48.
The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is
reflected in which of the following?
(a)
The Preamble
(b)
The Fundamental Rights
(c)
The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d)
The Fundamental Duties Solution: A
Straightforward
question
49.
If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is
the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel,
including the origin and the destination?
(a)
6
(b)
7
(c)
8
(d)
9
Justification:
You
need to cross Nagaland (origin), Assam, WB, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and then
through either Tamilnadu to Kerala (Kottayam), or through AP to Karnataka to
Kerala: 7 states either way.
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
 |
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
 |
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
 |
|
||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
 |
 |
 |
|||
LEGEND
50)
The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of
Ministers through
1.
Adjournment motion
2.
Question hour
3.
Supplementary questions
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3
Justification:
Statement
1: Matters of urgent importance can be raised in Adjournment motion.
Statement
2 and 3: MPs hold the executive accountable by asking questions, and
supplementary questions.
51.
Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya
kingdom?
(a)
Kakinada
(b)
Motupalli
(c)
Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
(d)
Nelluru Solution: B
Justification: There is dispute
whether the answer should be B, C or D.
Option B: Some texts
(http://tinyurl.com/yby78f8d) suggest that
Motupalli, now in the Krishna district, was an important sea-port in the
kingdom of Ganpati (an important Kakatiya ruler), frequented by foreign
merchants.
Option C: Marco
Polo, who visited India probably some time around 1289-1293, made note of
Rudrama Devi’s (a Kakatiya ruler) rule and nature in flattering terms.
Marco Polo referred
to the kingdom as Mutfili, which was the name for the area around a major port
of the dynasty, now known as Masulipatnam.
But, Marco Polo’s
reference may actually be to Motupalli (Mutfilli). So, C is incorrect. http://tinvurl.com/v8v3wb9v
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kakatiya_dynasty#cite_ref-26
Option
D: Nellore (a port town) was part of kakatiya kingdom in the 13th century. It
changed hands between them and Pandyas few times until Prataprudra II defeated
Pandyas.
However,
this does not seem as important as Motupalli. Answer will be B.
s
52)
With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
It is an initiative of the European Union.
2.
It provides technical and financial support to
targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their
development policies and budgets.
3.
It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI)
and World Business Council for
Sustainable
Development (WBCSD).
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b)
3 only
(c)
2 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: A
Statement 1: The
GCCA was established by the European Union (EU) in 2007 to strengthen dialogue
and cooperation with developing countries, in particular least developed
countries (LDCs) and small island developing States (SIDS).
Statement 2: By
fostering effective dialogue and cooperation on climate change, the Alliance
helps to ensure that poor developing countries most vulnerable to climate
change increase their capacities to adapt to the effects of climate change, in
support of the achievement of the Millenium Development Goals (MDGs).
Statement 3: There
is no mention of WRI and WBCSD at the official partners page of GCCA, even
though a lot of other institutions are mentioned like FAO, UNDP etc.
53)
With reference to the religious history of India,
consider the following statements:
1.
Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
2.
Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena
were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: B
Justification: Statement 1: These
are sects of Buddhism.
Statement 2: While,
like all Buddhists, the Sarvastivadins consider everything empirical to be impermanent,
they maintain that the dharma factors are eternally existing realities.
The
dharmas are thought to function momentarily, producing the empirical phenomena
of the world, which is illusory, but to exist outside the empirical world.
54)
Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the
following countries?
1.
Jordan
2.
Iraq
3.
Lebanon
4.
Syria
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1,2 and 3 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
3 and 4 only
(d)
1,3 and 4 only Solution: C
 |
55)
With reference to ‘National Investment and
Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2.
It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at present.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: D
Justification: NIIF has been structured
as a fund of funds and set up as Category II Alternate Investment Fund (AIF)
under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Regulations. Total
corpus of the fund is Rs. 40000 Crore.
£)
56.
The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an
(a)
ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and
financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
(b)
World Bank collaboration that facilitates the
preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private
Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional
investor capital.
(c)
Collaboration among the major banks of the world
working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure
projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
(d)
UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and
facilitate infrastructure development in the world.
Justification: It was launched by
the World Bank to cater to infrastructure needs of countries.
57.
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can
be filed by
(a)
anyone residing in India.
(b)
a resident of the constituency from which the election
is to be contested.
(c)
any citizen of India whose name appears in the
electoral roll of a constituency.
(d)
any citizen of India.
Straightforward
question.
58)
Consider the following statements:
1.
In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States
only.
2.
Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
3.
Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b)
3 only
(c)
2 and 3 only
(d)
1 and 3 only Solution: B
Statement 1:
Himalayas are spread over almost all the Northern and north-eastern Indian
states. Statement 1 is wrong.
Statement 2: Western
Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra
and Gujarat (6 states).
Statement 3: Pulicat
Lake (second largest brackish water lake in lndia)straddles the border of
Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu states (2 states).
59.
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
(a)
Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b)
Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c)
Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d)
Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions Solution: C
Justification: It is the amount of
dissolved oxygen needed (i.e., demanded) by aerobic biological organisms to
break down organic material present in a given water sample at certain
temperature over a specific time period.
60) With reference
to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a
better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?
1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the
United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally
sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter
for
all.
2.
Its partners are either governments or local urban
authorities only.
3.
UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the
United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking
water and basic sanitation.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1,2 and 3
(b)
1 and 3 only
(c)
2 and 3 only
(d)
1 only Solution: B
Why: India was recently
(March 2017) unanimously elected as the President of Un-Habitat.
Justification: Statement 1 and 3:
They are correct.
Statement
2: Through drawing together cooperation with committed partners, relevant
stakeholders, and urban actors, including at all levels of government as well
as the private sector, UN-Habitat is applying its technical expertise to the
New Urban Agenda and Sustainable Development Goa
61) With reference
to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements
given below is/are correct?
1.
Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification
for competency only through formal learning.
2.
An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is
the mobility between vocational and general education.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: B
Why: Schemes of the
Ministries and Departments lifted from their official websites.
Justification: Statement 1: NSQF
levels, graded from one to ten, are defined in terms of learning outcomes which
the learner must possess regardless of whether they are obtained through
formal, non-formal or informal learning.
Statement
2: Specific outcomes expected from implementation of NSQF are:
•
Mobility between vocational and general education by
alignment of degrees with NSQF
•
Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL), allowing
transition from non-formal to organised job market
•
Standardised, consistent, nationally acceptable
outcomes of training across the country through a national quality assurance
framework
62.
In the context of Indian history, the principle of 'Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers
to
(a)
Division of the central legislature into two houses.
(b)
Introduction of double government i.e., Central and
State governments.
(c)
Flaving two sets of rulers; one in London and another
in Delhi.
(d)
Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces
into two categories.
Straightforward
question
63) Consider
the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’:
1.
National Career Service is an initiative of the
Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
2.
National Career Service has been launched in a Mission
Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the
country.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: B
Why: Schemes of the
Ministries and Departments lifted from their official websites.
Justification:
Statement
1: It is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
Statement 2: It is a
National ICT based portal developed primarily to connect the opportunities with
the aspirations of youth. This portal facilitates registration of job seekers,
job providers, skill providers, career counsellors, etc.
64.
Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for
Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?
(a)
It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of
developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
(b)
It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial
structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
(c)
It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding
Central Public Sector Undertakings.
(d)
It is an important provision in The Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government.
Why: Either one of Joint
Lender’s Forum (JLF) or S4A was expected due to the ongoing issue of large
scale NPAs in the banking sector.
Justification: The Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) has issued guidelines called Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of
Stressed Assets (S4A) as an optional framework to manage bad loans.
Under this scheme,
large ticket loans are restructured by separating a sustainable loan from an
unsustainable loan.
The
lenders are required to make this classification. Sustainable level of debt is
one which the banks think the stressed borrower can service with its current
cash flows.
https://www.rbi.orq.in/scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?ld=10446&Mode=0 65) Consider the
following statements:
1.
Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short
Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
2.
The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and
hydrofluorocarbons.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Solution:
B
Justification: Statement 1: The Climate and
Clean Air Coalition to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants (CCAC) was
launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and six
countries—Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden, and the United States—in
2012.
Statement 2: The
Coalition’s initial focus is on methane, black carbon, and HFCs. http://www.ccacoalition.org/en/content/about-us
66) With reference
to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while
forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea
surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern
Pacific Ocean.
2.
An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on
the monsoon.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: B
Why: The IOD is
frequently seen in news before the onslaught on Monsoon in India. IMD bases its
Monsoon predictions on both IOD and El-Nino. This was an expected question.
Justification: Statement 1: The
IOD, also known as the Indian Nino, is an irregular oscillation of sea-surface
temperatures in which the western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and
then colder than the eastern part of the Indian ocean (not tropical eastern
pacific ocean.
Statement 2: IOD has
a much more significant effect on the rainfall patterns in south-east Australia
than the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) in the Pacific Ocean as shown in
several recent studies.
67.
If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the
following is the best place to visit?
(a)
Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b)
Chambal River
(c)
Pulicat Lake
(d)
Deepor Beel Solution: B
Why: A critically
endangered species especially featured in WWF India website: http://www.wwfindia.org/indian
qharial.cfm
Justification: Option A: Gharials
inhabit deep freshwater habitats, not both freshwater and saltwater habitats as
inhabited by crocodile species. So, A is ruled out. Option A is the home of
saltwater crocodile.
Option
B: Gharials can be naturally found in National Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary.
The gharial is one
of three crocodilians native to India, the other two being the mugger crocodile
and the saltwater crocodile.
68)
Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
1.
Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the
chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
2.
IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase
maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean
Region.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: B
Justification: Statement 1: The
inaugural IONS-2008 was held in New Delhi, India. CNS, Indian Navy was
designated the Chairman IONS for the period 2008-10.
Statement
2: It is correct http://ions.qov.in/about ions
69.
The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the
most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at
(a)
Ajanta
(b)
Badami
(c)
Bagh
(d)
Ellora
Standard
question from NCERT books
70.
Consider the following pairs:
Communities
1.
Chaliha Sahib
Festival
Chaliha Sahib
Festival
2.
Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra
3.
Wari-Warkari
Which of the pairs
given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
None of the above Solution: A
Justification: Statement 1: www.chalihasahib.com
Statement
2: Nanda Devi Raj Jaat Yatra is a festival of Gharwali and kumauoni people
Uttarakhand.
Statement 3: Wari
Warkari or Varkari (Pandharpur Wari) is a Maharashtrian festival celebrated by
Marathas.
71.
Which of the following practices can help in water
conservation in agriculture?
1.
Reduced or zero tillage of the land
2.
Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
3.
Allowing crop residue to remain in the field Select
the correct answer using the code given below :
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b)
3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3
Why: Standard questions
that are lifted from www.agritech.tnau.ac.in every year. Expect
2- 3 questions on core agricultural practices next year as well.
Statement 1: Tillage
is the agricultural preparation of soil by mechanical agitation of various
types, such as digging, stirring, and overturning.
No-till farming
(also called zero tillage or direct drilling) is a way of growing crops or
pasture from year to year without disturbing the soil through tillage. Zero
tillage helps in soil moisture conservation.
Statement 2: An
infiltration problem often occurs in farms if the irrigation water does not
enter the soil rapidly enough during a normal irrigation cycle.
Gypsum helps in
dissolution of the salt clay pan found in soils that hinder the percolation of
water. This increases the efficiency of irrigation as less water is needed to
irrigate the same soil.
Adding
gypsum to irrigation water further increases its infiltration rate.
Statement
3: This reduces evaporation of farm soil water.
72.
Consider the following statements:
The
nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at
1.
expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2.
enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to
be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3.
checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b)
3 only
(c)
2 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: B
Justification: Statement 3: Soil
Health card (SHC) is a printed report card issued to farmers in once in three
years indicating the status of his soil in terms of 12 parameters. It is also
accompanied by an advice on the various fertilizers and other soil amendments
he is suppose to make. So, only 3 is correct.
Statement 2: This
can be an outcome of the scheme and complement it, but it is not an aim or a
central feature of the scheme.
73.
Consider the following pairs:
Commonly used /
consumed materials and Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found
in them
1.
Lipstick
Lipstick
2.
Soft drinks
3.
Chinese fast food
Which of the pairs
given above is/are correctly matched?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: D
Why: The Maggi MSG
Episode and the opposition of cosmetic animal testing by several NGOs recently
Justification: Statement 1: It is
one of the ingredients.www.safecosmetics.org/get-the-
facts/reaulations/us-laws/lead-in-lipstick/
Statement 2:
Brominated vegetable oil is used primarily to help emulsify citrus-flavored
soft drinks, preventing them from separating during distribution.
Statement
3: This was found in Maggi.
74)
Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to
create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED
displays over Liquid Crystal displays?
1.
OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic
substrates.
2.
Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made
using OLEDs.
3.
Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below
(a)
1 and 3 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
1, 2 and 3
(d)
None of the above statements is correct Solution: C
Why:
Introduction
of OLED screens in TVs and smartphones by major brands: The question statements
were directly lifted from Wikipedia.
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: A
major advantage of OLED over LCD is that it is lightweight and has flexible
plastic substrates.
•
OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic
substrates, leading to the possible fabrication of flexible organic
light-emitting diodes for other new applications, such as roll-up displays
embedded in fabrics or clothing.
•
If a substrate like polyethylene terephthalate (PET)
can be used, the displays may be produced inexpensively.
•
Furthermore, plastic substrates are shatter-resistant,
unlike the glass displays used in LCD devices.
Statement 3: At the
Consumer Electronics Show (CES) in 2010, Samsung demonstrated a laptop computer
with a large, transparent OLED display featuring up to 40% transparency.
75)
Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?
1.
Arasavalli
2.
Amarakantak
3.
Omkareshwar
Select the correct
answer using the code given below :
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: A
Justification: Statement 1:
Arasavalli Sun Temple is a 7th-century AD Sun Temple at Arasavalli in Andhra
Pradesh.
Statement
3: Omkareshwar is a temple dedicated to God Shiva. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omkareshwar
76)
Consider the following statements:
1.
In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the
winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be
declared elected.
2.
According to the provisions laid down in the
Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority
party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which
of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: D
Justification: Statement 1: We
follow the First past the post system, where majority of votes is sufficient to
get elected, even if it is less than 50% of the total votes polled.
Statement
2: Speaker and Deputy speaker are elected by the house. This is a convention
(not constitutional provision) that usually Speaker’s post goes to the majority
party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
77)
Which of the following has/have occurred in India
after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?
1.
Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
2.
Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
3.
FDI inflows increased.
4.
India’s foreign exchange reserves increased
enormously.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
(a)
1 and 4 only
(b)
2, 3 and 4 only
(c)
2 and 3 only
(d)
1,2, 3 and 4 Solution: B
Justification: Statement 1: It has
reduced post-1991.
Statement 2, 3 and
4: These happened on account of liberalization of the current as well capital
account. From the time when India could have defaulted BoP in 1991, we have
reached a situation today where forex reserves are over $350 billion!
78.
What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?
(a)
Production of biolarvicides
(b)
Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
(c)
Reproductive cloning of animals
(d)
Production of organisms free of diseases Solution: C
Justification:
Somatic
cell cloning is a technique in which the nucleus (DNA) of a somatic cell is
transferred for the generation of a new individual, genetically identical to
the somatic cell donor.
https://www.sciencedaily.com/terms/somatic_cell_nuclear_transfer.htm 79) Consider the
following statements:
1.
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in
promoting financial inclusion in the country.
2.
NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: C
Justification: Statement 1: NPCI is
an umbrella organization for all retail payments system in India. Thus, an
important objective of NPCI is to facilitate an affordable payment mechanism to
benefit the common man across the country and help financial inclusion.
Statement
2: Rupay is a domestic card payment network that provides an alternative to
international card schemes. It was introduced by NPCI.
80.
The term ‘M-STrlPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a)
Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(b)
Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
(c)
Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
(d)
Security of National Highways Solution: B
Justification: The android-based
monitoring software M-STrlPES will be used across all the Tiger Reserves of the
country.
april-1568257.html
81) What is/are the
most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?
1.
It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple
authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
2.
It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account
Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
3.
It will enormously increase the growth and size of
economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 and 3 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: A
Justification: Statement 1: It is a
standard aim of GST.
Statement 2: It may
reduce the fiscal deficit in the long-run and may place CAD favourably due to
better foreign investment climate owing to an improved tax structure. But, the
word ‘drastically’ is extreme and so the statement is incorrect.
Statement
3: This is also an extreme statement and wrong.
82.
‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the
news in the context of negotiations held between India and
(a)
European Union
(b)
Gulf Cooperation Council
(c)
Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d)
Shanghai Cooperation Organization Solution: A
Straightforward
question from current affairs: it is in news since last 4-5 years. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/lndia%E2%80%93European
Union relations#Historv
83)
Consider the following statements:
1.
India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement
(TFA) of WTO.
2.
TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
3.
TFA came into force in January 2016.
Which
of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b)
1 and 3 only
(c)
2 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: A
Why: Expected question on
TFA (WTO Agreement) due to frequently being in news.
Justification:
Statement
1: http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/foreign-
trade/india-ratifies-trade-facilitation-agreement-of-wto/articleshow/52110279.cms
Statement 3: It came
in force in February 2017.
84.
What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
(a)
India’s trade with African countries will enormously
increase.
(b)
India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries
will be strengthened.
(c)
India will not depend on Pakistan for access to
Afghanistan and Central Asia.
(d)
Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation
of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.
Why:
Standard
question on current events of International importance
Justification: The port will make
way for India to bypass Pakistan in transporting goods to Afghanistan using a
sea-land route. At present, Pakistan does not allow India to transport through
its territory to Afghanistan.
port-and-how-india-gains-from-it/articleshow/52400399.cms
85) In India, it is
legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security
incidents?
1.
Service providers
2.
Data centres
3.
Body corporate
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 only
(b)
1 and 2 only
(c)
3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: D
Justification: The CERT Rules also
impose an obligation on service providers, intermediaries, data centres and
body corporates to report cyber incidents within a reasonable time so that
CERT-ln may have scope for timely action.
86.
Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(a)
Fundamental Right
(b)
Natural Right
(c)
Constitutional Right
(d)
Legal Right Solution: D
Justification: There is dispute
whether the answer should be C or D.
Case for Option C:
Logically the answer seems to be C because Article 326 of constitution grants
adult suffrage which implies the right to vote.
Moreover, a
democratic constitution loses its essence if it does not provide for a right to
vote as a constitutional right.
It is true that
Representation of People’s Act also provides for a Right to Vote, but they may
be considered qualifications (conditions) on the Right to Vote already granted
by the constitution in A326.
An analogy can be
Child Labour Act or Bonded labour prohibition Act where these fundamental
rights are separately enforced by law. So, the case for Option C looks strong.
Option D: But, the
Supreme Court is the final interpreter of the constitution and its view will
prevail notwithstanding all arguments.
The Supreme Court
observed in PUCL vs. Union of India (2015), “No doubt, the right to vote
is a statutory right but it is equally vital to recollect that this
statutory right is the essence of democracy. Without this, democracy will fail
to thrive. Therefore, even if the right to vote is statutory, the significance
attached with the right is massive.”
Therefore, the
answer to this question is D, not C.
87.
What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’
project?
(a)
To detect neutrinos
(b)
To detect gravitational waves
(c)
To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
(d)
To study the effect of solar flares on our
communication systems Solution: B
Justification: eLISA’s primary
objective is the detection and examination of gravitational waves emitted by
the super-massive black holes that reside in the centres of many galaxies. In
addition, eLISA will measure the signals of thousands of compact binary star
systems in the Milky Way.
88)
What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana’?
1.
To enable the famous foreign educational institutions
to open their campuses in India.
2.
To increase the quality of education provided in
government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
3.
To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from
private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure
facilities for primary and secondary schools.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below :
(a)
2 only
(b)
3 only
(c)
1 and 2 only Solution: A
Why: Lifted from MHRD’s
website home page, as is the case for most government schemes that have been
lifted from the official websites in this paper.
Justification: This programme has
been envisaged to bring together people willing to volunteer their services at
schools which really need them.
The
aim of the programme is to strengthen implementation of co-scholastic
activities in government schools through services of volunteers.
89. What is the aim
of the programme 'Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?
(a)
Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration
between voluntary organizations and government’s education system and local
communities.
(b)
Connecting institutions of higher education with local
communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
(c)
Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions
in order to make India a scientific and technological power.
(d)
Developing human capital by allocating special funds
for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill
development programmes and vocational training for them.
Why:
Lifted
from MHRD’s website: Government scheme.
Justification:
MHRD
has launched a programme called Unnat Bharat Abhiyan with an aim to connect
institutions of higher education, including Indian Institutes of Technology
(NTs),
National Institutes
of Technology (NITs) and Indian Institutes of Science Education &
Research (IISERs)
etc. with local communities to address the development challenges through
appropriate technologies.
90)
Consider the following statements :
1.
The Election Commission of India is a five-member
body.
2.
Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election
schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3.
Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to
splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct ?
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
2 and 3 only
(d)
3 only Solution: D
Why: The recent
controversy surrounding Samajwaadi Party split/merger in UP elections where ECI
recognized the party led by Akhilesh yadav as the one representing SP.
Justification:
Statement
1: Presently it is a three member body, one CEC and two other ECs.
Statement
2: ECI decides this schedule.
Statement 3: Splits,
mergers and alliances have frequently disrupted the compositions of political
parties.
This has led to a
number of disputes over which section of a divided party gets to keep the party
symbol, and how to classify the resulting parties in terms of national and
state parties.
The Election
Commission has to resolve these disputes, although its decisions can be
challenged in the courts.
91.
In India, if a species of tortoise is declared
protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it
imply ?
(a)
It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b)
It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are
under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
(c)
It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(d)
Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this
context.
Justification: Schedule I animals under the
Wildlife Act enjoy the highest protection in India. Since tiger is also covered
in Schedule I, option A is correct.
92.
In India, Judicial Review implies
(a)
the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the
constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
(b)
the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of
the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(c)
the power of the Judiciary to review all the
legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
(d)
the power of the Judiciary to review its own
judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
Justification:
Judicial
Review refers to the power of the judiciary to interpret the constitution and
to declare any such law or order of the legislature and executive void, if it
finds them in conflict the Constitution of India.
93)
With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider
the following events :
1.
Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
2.
Quit India Movement launched
3.
Second Round Table Conference
What is the correct
chronological sequence of the above events ?
(a)
1-2-3
(b)
2-1-3
(c)
3-2-1
(d)
3-1-2 Solution: C
Justification: Second Round
Conference happened in 1931, Quit India Movement in 1942 and Mutiny in Royal
Indian Navy in 1946.
94)
Consider the following statements :
1.
Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily
increased in the last decade.
2.
Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has
steadily increased in the last decade.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c)
Both 1 and 2
(d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: D
Why: Basic macroeconomic
data from Economic Survey
Justification: Statement 1: It asks
about India’s Tax buoyancy, which the responsiveness of tax revenue
mobilisation to GDP growth.
It is calculated as
a ratio of percentage growth in tax revenues to growth in nominal GDP for a
given year.
Tax is said to be
buoyant (more than 1) if the gross tax revenues increase more than
proportionately in response to a rise in GDP figures. If it is less than 1, it
means tax revenues have not increased proportionately with GDP growth.
The
figure below shows variation in tax buoyancy from 2004-05 to 2015-16, which
have been up and below 1 like a wave. So, statement 1 is wrong.
The
graph above shows tax revenues as a percentage of GDP from 2002 to 2014.
Statement 2: Fiscal
deficit as a percentage of GDP had increased rapidly in recession years (post
2008) due the fiscal stimulus given by the government and then declined due to
the fiscal consolidation measures adopted. So, 2 is also wrong.
Central and State taxes
Indirect
2004-05 2006-07 2008-09 2010-11 2012-13
 |
2005-06 2007-08 2009-10 2011-12 2013-14 2015-16
95. Recently there
was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in
Gujarat to which one of the following sites ?
(a)
Corbett National Park
(b)
Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(c)
Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d)
Sariska National Park Solution: B
Why:
In
news and mired by controversies due to Gujarat government’s reluctance to send
tigers to MP.
The
Supreme Court in 2013 ruled in favour of translocation of the Asiatic lion to
Kuno in the interest of the genetic stability of the species.
may-agree-to-translocate-gir-lions-to-kuno-sanctuary/articleshow/52803382.cms
96)
Which of the following are not necessarily the
consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
1.
Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2.
Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3.
Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1 and 2 only
(b)
1 and 3 only
(c)
2 and 3 only
(d)
1,2 and 3 Solution: B
Justification:
Statement
2: When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the
state council of ministers headed by the chief minister.
Statement 1: The
President can either suspend or dissolve the Legislative assembly, so 1 is not
necessarily the consequence of proclamation.
97)
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right
against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1.
Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced
labour
2.
Abolition of untouchability
3.
Protection of the interests of minorities
4.
Prohibition of employment of children in factories and
mines
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a)
1,2 and 4 only
1,2 and 4 only
(b)
2, 3 and 4 only
(c)
1 and 4 only
(d)
1,2, 3 and 4 Solution: C
Justification: Abolition of
untouchability comes under Right to Equality.
Protection
of the interests of minorities comes under Cultural and Educational Rights.
98.
Which of the following is geographically closest to
Great Nicobar ?
(a)
Sumatra
(b)
Borneo
(c)
Java
(d)
Sri Lanka Solution: A
 |
 |
|
Justification: Distance from Great Nicobar to Sri Lanka is 1,437 km. Distance from Great Nicobar to Sumatra is 1,192 km.
99.
Out of the following statements, choose the one that
brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
(a)
An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against
the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the
satisfaction of all.
(b)
A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the
Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c)
A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring
collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d)
A device for strengthening the hands of the head of
the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Straightforward
question
100.
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian
federalism?
(a)
There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b)
Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre
and the States.
(c)
The federating units have been given unequal
representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d)
It is the result of an agreement among the federating
units.
Justification:
The
phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two
reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the
states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to
secede from the federation.
The federation is an
Union because it is indestructible. The country is an integral whole and
divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.
I love this information, this is very useful. If you want, read something new technology to earn more money in life please click here New Technology Skill
ReplyDelete